daily mcq

DAILY QUIZ-31

DAILY QUIZ-31





Daily quiz 31 is yet another update to our series of GPAT MCQ/ GPAT questions. The aim is to make life easier for aspirants looking for GPAT 2017 paper practice. Our each quiz consist of 1o MCQs based on complete B.Pharm syllabus. At times there could be one subject or topic dominant in a quiz but we make sure the other subjects/topics get their due in upcoming quizzes. The answers to these questions is given at the end.






Q1.  An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:
     a. enalapril.
b. fosinopril.
c. lisinopril.
d. quinapril.
Q2. Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
a. Deliquescence
b. Efflorescence
c. Hygroscopicity
d. Polymorphism
Q3. Correct statements regarding reversed-phase high-performance liquid chromatography include which of the following?
   I The stationary phase is hydrophobic.
II The mobile phase is polar.
III The compound to be separated is very polar.

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only





Q4. Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:
   a. haemorrhoidal vein → portal vein.
b. mesenteric vein → portal vein.
c. haemorrhoidal vein → inferior vena cava.
d. mesenteric vein → hepatic artery.
e. gastric vein → hepatic vein.
Q5. Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body.
b. post-antimicrobial effect.
c. enhanced tissue accumulation.
d. reduced renal clearance.

Prepare GPAT in 30 days.
Q6. All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:
a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.
b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.
c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass.
d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.





Q7. Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:
I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.
II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.
III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
Q8. The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. salbutamol.
b. diphenhydramine.
c. epinephrine.
d. acetazolamide.
Q9. Enkephalins are peptides that:
a. have narcotic antagonist activity.
b. exert actions resembling those of opiates.
c. are found only in the central nervous system.
d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.
Q10. Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs or symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. dry skin.

b. flushed appearance.
c. delirium and restlessness.
d. diarrhea.

 

 





1-B;  2-B;    3-C;    4-B;   5-B;   6-D;    7-A;   8-C;   9-B;    10-D

 

 


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DAILY QUIZ-30

DAILY QUIZ-30

Daily quiz 30 is yet another update to our series of GPAT MCQ/ GPAT questions. Our each quiz consist of 1o MCQs based on complete B.Pharm syllabus. At times there could be one subject or topic dominant in a quiz but we make sure the other subjects/topics get their due in upcoming quizzes. The answers to these questions is given at the end.


 




Q1. Heparin acts via activation of
a)
Antithrombin III
b) Factor VIII
c) Factor II and X
d) Factor V

Q2. 0.9% w/v sodium chloride has a freezing point depression of
a) -0.500 C
b) -0.520 C
c) -0.560 C
d) -0.580 C

Q3. Doxycycline  

  1. is bacteriostatic.
  2. is broad spectrum antibacterial drug.
  3. may be administered in renal impairment.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct

a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 only

Q4. In India, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendation of

a) Indian Council of Medical Research
b) Pharmacy council of India
c) Drug Technical Advisory Board
d) National Pharmaceutical Advisory Board




Q5. The trophic level of a given species depends on its
a) functionality
b) strength
c) number
d) size

Q6. The following properties of a drug encourage its accumulation in breast milk, except  :
a)
high lipid solubility
b) unionized state
c) low molecular weight
d) weak acid

Q7. If Liquorice shows pink-red colour with acetic anhydride and H2SO4 then what is the chief constituent present in it
a)
Triterpenoids/ glycyrrhizin
b) Steroids/ B-sitosterol
c) Flavonoids/ Liquritin
d) Coumarin/ Liquo-coumarin

Q8. Following adverse effects are rightly paired with a causative anti-malarial drug except :
a)
Lichenoid skin eruption :   Chloroquine
b) Steven-Johnson syndrome   :    Quinine
c) Hallucinations   :   Mefloquine
d)  Prolongation of QTc   : Halofantrine

Q9. All of following statements about first order degradation are true, except:
a)
its rate is dependent on the concentration
b) its half life is changing parameter
c) a plot of the log of concentration versus time yields a straight line
d) its t90% is independent if the concentration

Q10. Diphtheria is assayed by
a)
Sham test
b) Shick test
c) VDRL test
d) Kahn’s test





1-A;  2-B;    3-A;    4-C;   5-A;   6-D;    7-A;   8-B;   9-D;    10-B


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DAILY QUIZ -29

DAILY QUIZ -29





Daily quiz 29 is yet another update to our series of GPAT MCQ/ GPAT questions. Our each quiz consist of 1o MCQs based on complete B.Pharm syllabus. At times there could be one subject or topic dominant in a quiz but we make sure the other subjects/topics get their due in upcoming quizzes. The answers to these questions is given at the end.





Q1. Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic
activity?

(A) 1,3-Disubstitution
(B) 5,5-Disubstitution
(C) 1,5-Disubstitution
(D) 3,3-Disubstitution

Q2. A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is :
(A) 125%
(B) 250 %
(C) 12.5%
(D) 1.25%

Q3. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
(A) Imipramine
(B) Iproniazide
(C) Fluoxetin
(D)Naphazoline

Q4. Anisocytic stomata are present in
(A) Senna
(B)Digitalis
(C) Belladonna
(D) Coca





Q5. Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring
system?

(A) Pyrimidine
(B)Benzimidazole
(C) Benzothiazole
(D) Oxindole

Q6. Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to ______family.
(A)Scrophulariacea
(B) Leguminosae
(C) Polygalaceae
(D) Rubiaceae

Q7. A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is
(A) Fluvastatin
(B) Cerivastatin
(C) Lovastatin
(D) Somatostatin

Q8. Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as
(A) alkylating agent before metabolism
(B)alkylating agent after metabolism
(C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism
(D) DNA intercalating agent

Q9. Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material.
(A) Phthalic anhydride
(B) Terephthalic acid
(C) Phthalamic acid
(D) Phthalimide

Q10. In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their?
(A) volatility
(B) solubility
(C)thermal conductivity
(D) polarizability





1-B;  2-C;    3-C;    4-C;   5-B;   6-A;    7-B;   8-B;   9-B;    10-D


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DAILY QUIZ-28

DAILY QUIZ-28

Daily quiz 28 is yet another update to our series of GPAT MCQ/ GPAT questions. Our each quiz consist of 1o MCQs based on complete B.Pharm syllabus. At times there could be one subject or topic dominant in a quiz but we make sure the other subjects/topics get their due in upcoming quizzes. The answers to these questions is given at the end.


Q1. Which of the following contain alkaloids of tropane?
a) Belladonnae folium
b) Scopoliae rhizoma et radix
c) Stramonii folium
d) Chelidonii herba

Q2. Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms occurs across epithelial tight junctions and is driven by a concentration gradient?

a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis

Q3. Drug bio-transformation phase I makes drugs ____ polar for metabolism and phase II makes drugs ____ polar for excretion.
a) More; More
b) More; Less
c) Less; More
d) Less; Less

Q4. Urea was synthesis for the first time by
a) Kolbe
b) Wöhler
c) Ostwald
d) Schleiden

Q5. Which of the following locations contains choline from phosphatidylcholine?
a) Milk
b) Liver
c) Eggs
d) Blood plasma





Q6. Whose name is linked to  the following definition?
“Everything is poison, there is poison in everything. Only the dose makes a thing not a poison.”
a) Galen
b) Ehrlich
c) Paracelsus
d) Avicenna

Q7. Which of the following describes the pathway of nitric oxide (NO)?
a) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
b) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasodilation
c) Stimulates guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction
d) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, increase cGMP concentration, vasodilation
e) Inhibits guanylyl cyclase, decreases cGMP concentration, vasoconstriction

Q8. Which of the following reagents can not be used for alkaloid detection?
a) The Mayer’s reagent
b) The Kedde’s reagent
c) The Dragendorff’s reagent
d) The Wagnor’s reagent

Q9. In mass spectra the most intense peak is
a) Parent Peak
b) Base Peak
c) Daughter Peak
d) Metastable Peak

Q10. Changes in absorption spectra by certain groups but do not absorb radiation such compounds called
a) Chromophore
b) Auxochrome
c) Both a and b
d) Auxotroph


1-a;  2-a;    3-a;    4-b;   5-6;   6-c;    7-a;   8-b;   9-b;    10-b


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DAILY QUIZ-27

DAILY QUIZ-27

Q1. An antiarrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures
a) Phenytoin
b) Liganocaine
c) Bretyleum
d) Amiodarone

Q2. If wave length of electromagnetic radiation is 400 nm, then its wave number is
a) 20, 000 cm-1
b) 25, 000 cm-1
c) 30, 000 cm-1
d) 40, 000 cm-1

Q3. Which of the following is not a third generation cephalosporin antibiotic?
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefotaxime
c) Cefepime
d) Cefpodoxime

Q4. The source of radiation used in IR spectrophotometry is
a) Nernest glower
b) Sodium lamp
c) Deuterium
d) Tungsten

Q5. When Guanethidine & tricyclic antidepressants are coadministered, the results is 
a) Increase guanthidine activity
b) Decrease ganthidine activity
c) No effect on guanthidine activity
d) None of these

Q6.  Reduction (destruction) in the intensity of fluorescence is called as
a) Suppression
b) Depression
c) Sedation
d) Quenching

Q7. Imipenem belongs to the class of 
a) Penicillin
b) Cephalosporine
c) Monobactum
d) Carbapenem

Q8  Which of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against MDR strains of M. tuberculosis, including those resistant to streptomycin?
a) Amikacin
b) Gentamycin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Meropenam

Q9 Somatostatin, produced from gamma-cells of pancreas
a) Stimulates the release of insulin
b) Stimulates the release of insulin and glucagon
c) inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon
d) Stimulates the release of glucagon

Q 10 Streptomycin has no useful activity in the treatment of
a) Tuberculosis
b) Tularemia
c) Bubonic plague
d) Brucellosis


1.a;        2.b;        3.c;        4.a;        5.b;        6.d;        7.d;        8.a;        9.c;        10.d

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DAILY QUIZ-26

DAILY QUIZ-26

Q1. Which of the following  clotting factor found in blood
A-Thrombin
B-Prothrombin
C-Heparin
D-Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10.

Q2. Example of oils used in parenteral preparations, except
A-Sesame oil
B-Olive oil
C-Cotton seed oil
D-Mineral oil

Q3.Two drugs to be pharmaceutical equivalent, the drugs must:
I-contain same exipient
II-Contain it salts
III-Same therapeutic moiety
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D-II and III only

Q4. In gravimetric analysis, the purpose of carrying out a chemical reaction to form an insoluble derivatives which  is filtered off, dried and weighed is:
I-To ensures that certain potential im purities remain behind in solution.
II-To ensures that the precipitant is in a higher form of purity.
III-To ensure the specificity of the assay procedures
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. All of the above






Q5. Anterior Pituitary secretes all of the following principle hormones, EXCEPt:
A-LH
B-Prolactin
C-FSH
D-ADH

Q6. Amylase is an enzyme produced by pancreas what is true about amylase?
I-Amylaze is NOT secreted by pancreas
II-Amylaze breakdown starch
III-Amyaze levels are increased in pancreatitis
A-I only
B- III only
C- I and II only
D- II and III only

Q7. The fragment of sulpha drugs that produces sulfa allergy is
A- Trifluromethyl group
B- Sulfonamide
C-Benzene ring
D-Sulfadioxide

Q8. Narcolepsi is
A-Excessive insomnia
B-Insomnia daytime
C-Excessive sleep at daytime
D-Hypersomnia

Q9. Benzalkonium chlorides is
A-Non ionic surfactants
B-Anionic surfactants
C-Cationic surfactants
D-Poly oxyalkylene derivatives

Q10. Compared to the sublingual tablet, nitroglycerine ointment is:
A-More stable
B-More effective
C-More prolong effect
D-More absorbed


1-B;    2-D;    3-D;    4-D;    5-D;    6-D;    7-B;    8-C;    9-C;    10-C

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DAILY QUIZ-25

DAILY QUIZ-25




Q1. A drug has first order rate of reactions and half-life is 3 hours, the half life will be related to the following statement:
a) Increase when concentration of drug increases
b) Decrease when concentration of drug increase
c) Independent of initial drug concentration
d) decrease in-patient with renal impairments

Q2. The lack of function of bone marrow generally results in
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Pernicious anemia

Q3. Lyophylization (freeze dry) method used for:
a) drying wet drugs to powder
b) powder sterilization methods
c) Hormone sterilization methods
d) Sublimation methods used in drying wet powder

Q4. Sodium benzoate is used as
A-Preservative
B-Solvent
C-Co-solvent
D-Filler

Q5. What analgesic has withdrawn from market because of it cardiac heart failure side effect?
a) Celecoxib
b) Rofecoxib
c) Lumirocoxib
d) Diclofenac




Q6. Glutathione conjugation, a phase II metabolism produces which of the following
substance as derivative of its reactions?
a) Carboxilic acid
b) Glucuronic acid
c) PABA + Alcohol
d) Marcapturic acid

Q7. In some suppositories preparation, epinephrine is used because
a) It is vasodilator
b) Increase the rate of absorption of drug
c) It is vasoconstrictor, increase localized action
d) It is decrease absorption of drug

Q8. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the ethanol to acetaldehyde conversion
a) Alcohol decarboxylase
b) Alcohol hydroxylase
c) Alcohol hydrogenase
d) Alcohol dehydrogenase

Q9. The functional group present in captopril is:
a) sulfonamide
b) Bisulfate
c) Sulfhydryl group
d) Nitrate group

Q10 High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) resolute means:
I-Resolution of one analyte from others in substance mixture
II-Resolution of solvents  
III- Resolution of stationary phase
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) All of the above are correct





1-c;   2-b;    3-d;    4-a;   5-b;   6-d;    7-c;   8- d;  9-c ;   10-a

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DAILY QUIZ-24

DAILY QUIZ-24




1. Morphin is separable from its side alkaloids because:
a) morphine has a piperidine ring.
b) morphine has two methoxy groups.
c) morphine has phenolic hydroxyl group while the side alkaloids have none.
d) morphine has no phenolic hydroxyl group while the side alkaloid has it.

2. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
a) Ouabain
b) Phlorrizin
c) Digoxin
d) Alloxan

3. Ginseng saponins are of the …………… series.
a) lupane
b) ursane
c) abietane
d) dammarane

4. In an electrolytic cell the electrode at which the electrons enter the solution is called the ______ ; the chemical change that occurs at this electrode is called _______.
a) anode, oxidation
b) anode, reduction
c) cathode, oxidation
d) cathode, reduction

5. Aspirin overdose toxicities may treated by:
a) Acidic diuresis
b) Alkaline diuresis
c) Sodium acetate
d) Activated charcoal




6. All of the following insulin physiological actions are correct except:
a) Increase glycogenesis
b) Decrease gluconeogenesis
c) Increase lipolysis
d) Decrease glycogenesis

7. What type of compounds are formed through acid catalysed decomposition of procyanidins?
a) flavanone
b) catechin
c) flavonol
d) chalkone

8. Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:
a) pyrimidine ring.
b) purine ring.
c) pyrazine ring.
d) pteridine ring.

9. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for the activity of enzyme is called
a) Holoenzyme
b) Apoenzyme
c) Coenzyme
d) Isoenzyme

10. Many lead salts are often used as pigments. If PbSO4were used in an unglazed ceramic bowl, how many milligrams of lead(II) could dissolve per liter of water?
a) 43
b) 35
c) 11
d) 28





1-c;   2-b;    3-d;    4-d;   5-b;   6-d;    7-d;   8- d;  9-c ;   10-d

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DAILY QUIZ-23

DAILY QUIZ-23





1. Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs ____ polar for metabolism and phase II makes drugs ____ polar for excretion.
a) More; More
b) More; Less
c) Less; More
d) Less; Less
2. Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
3. Which of the following drug safety categories for pregnancy is the highest risk, where studies have shown a significant risk to women and to the fetus?
a) A
b) H
c) C
d) X
4. Tachyphylaxis refers to which of the following?
a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug
b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug
c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitive)
d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitized)




5. Toluene on Friedel Craft’s halogenation gives
a) ortho halotoluene
b) para halotoluene
c) meta halotoluene
d) Both a and b
6. What clinical trial phase involves small does up to profound physiologic responses,or up to minor toxicity (pharmacokinetics)?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
7. Which is not the chemical constituent naturally obtained from Opium?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Narcotine
d) Heroine
8. Which drug is not belonging to family Apocyanaceae ?
a) Vinca
b) Rauwolfia
c) Kurchi
d) Gloriosa
9. The most common solvent used in oral preparations is
a) Water
b) Alcohol
c) Glycerine
d) Rose water
10. Benzalkonium is a_________ type of preservative.
a) Acidic
b) Neutral
c) Mercurial
d) Quaternary Ammonium Compound




1-a;   2-d;    3-d;    4-b;   5-d;   6-a;    7-d;   8-d ;  9- a;   10-d

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DAILY QUIZ-22

DAILY QUIZ-22

1. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline

2. Which vitamin is useful in alcoholism?
a) Thiamine
b) Pyridoxine
c) Folic acid
d) Ascorbic acid

3. Local anesthetics are:
a) Weak bases
b) Weak acids
c) Salts
d) None of the above

4. Which of the following is not a prodrug?
I)captopril                    II)enalapril             III)ramipril             IV)lisinopril
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and IV
d) III and IV

5. Aliskiren acts by
a) Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
b) Inhibiting the release of rennin
c) Inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
d) Inhibiting the action of aldosterone

6. Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
a) Mono-exponentially
b) Bi-exponentially
c) Tri-exponentially
d) Non-exponentially

7. Which of the following statements is not correct for local anesthetics?
a) In a tissue they exist either as an uncharged base or as a cation
b) A charged cationic form penetrates biologic membranes more readily than an uncharged form
c) Local anesthetics are much less effective in inflamed tissues
d) Low pH in inflamed tissues decreases the dissociation of nonionized molecules.

8. Coulter counter is used in determination of
a) Particle surface area
b) particle size
c) Particle volume
d) All of the above

9. The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is
a) ureide
b) imidazolidinone
c) dihydropyrimidine
d) tetrahydropyrimidine

10. Drug and Magic Remedy act is also called as
a) Objectionable Drugs Act
b) Objectionable Treatment Act
c) Objectionable Advertisement Act
d) Magical drugs act





1-c; 2-a; 3-a; 4-c; 5-b; 6-a; 7-b; 8-d ; 9- a; 10-c

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