free gpat questions



1. Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs ____ polar for metabolism and phase II makes drugs ____ polar for excretion.
a) More; More
b) More; Less
c) Less; More
d) Less; Less
2. Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
3. Which of the following drug safety categories for pregnancy is the highest risk, where studies have shown a significant risk to women and to the fetus?
a) A
b) H
c) C
d) X
4. Tachyphylaxis refers to which of the following?
a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug
b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug
c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitive)
d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitized)

5. Toluene on Friedel Craft’s halogenation gives
a) ortho halotoluene
b) para halotoluene
c) meta halotoluene
d) Both a and b
6. What clinical trial phase involves small does up to profound physiologic responses,or up to minor toxicity (pharmacokinetics)?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
7. Which is not the chemical constituent naturally obtained from Opium?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Narcotine
d) Heroine
8. Which drug is not belonging to family Apocyanaceae ?
a) Vinca
b) Rauwolfia
c) Kurchi
d) Gloriosa
9. The most common solvent used in oral preparations is
a) Water
b) Alcohol
c) Glycerine
d) Rose water
10. Benzalkonium is a_________ type of preservative.
a) Acidic
b) Neutral
c) Mercurial
d) Quaternary Ammonium Compound

1-a;   2-d;    3-d;    4-b;   5-d;   6-a;    7-d;   8-d ;  9- a;   10-d

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1. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline

2. Which vitamin is useful in alcoholism?
a) Thiamine
b) Pyridoxine
c) Folic acid
d) Ascorbic acid

3. Local anesthetics are:
a) Weak bases
b) Weak acids
c) Salts
d) None of the above

4. Which of the following is not a prodrug?
I)captopril                    II)enalapril             III)ramipril             IV)lisinopril
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and IV
d) III and IV

5. Aliskiren acts by
a) Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
b) Inhibiting the release of rennin
c) Inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
d) Inhibiting the action of aldosterone

6. Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
a) Mono-exponentially
b) Bi-exponentially
c) Tri-exponentially
d) Non-exponentially

7. Which of the following statements is not correct for local anesthetics?
a) In a tissue they exist either as an uncharged base or as a cation
b) A charged cationic form penetrates biologic membranes more readily than an uncharged form
c) Local anesthetics are much less effective in inflamed tissues
d) Low pH in inflamed tissues decreases the dissociation of nonionized molecules.

8. Coulter counter is used in determination of
a) Particle surface area
b) particle size
c) Particle volume
d) All of the above

9. The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is
a) ureide
b) imidazolidinone
c) dihydropyrimidine
d) tetrahydropyrimidine

10. Drug and Magic Remedy act is also called as
a) Objectionable Drugs Act
b) Objectionable Treatment Act
c) Objectionable Advertisement Act
d) Magical drugs act

1-c; 2-a; 3-a; 4-c; 5-b; 6-a; 7-b; 8-d ; 9- a; 10-c

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Q1. Tick the drug belonging to  nitrobenzene derivative:
a) Clindamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Azithromycin
d) Chloramphenicol

Q2. Choose the unwanted effects of clonidine:
a) Parkinson’s syndrome
b) Sedative and hypnotic effects
c) Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia
d) Dry cough and respiratory depression

Q3. Indicate the intravenous anesthetic, which produces dissociative anesthesia:
a) Midazolam
b) Ketamine
c) Fentanyl
d) Thiopental

Q4. Which of the following agents is an opioid antagonist?
a) Amphetamine
b) Naltrexone
c) Morphine
d) Disulfiram

Q5. All of the following agents are beta receptor agonists EXCEPT:
a) Epinephrine
b) Isoproterenol
c) Methoxamine
d) Dobutamine


Q6.  Tick the diuretic agent – aldosterone antagonist:
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Dichlothiazide
d) Captopril

Q7. Which of the following statements refers to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol):  
a) The combined effect of calcitriol and all other vitamin D metabolites and analogs on both calcium and phosphate makes careful monitoring of the level of these minerals especially important to avoid ectopic calcification
b) Does not undergo enterohepatic circulation
c) Toxic to osteoclasts
d) Bioavailability increases with the administered dose

Q8. Vancomicin has the following unwanted effects:
a) Pseudomembranous colitis
b) Hepatotoxicity
c) “Red neck” syndrome, phlebitis
d) All of the above

Q9. Tick the anticancer alkylating drug,  a derivative of chloroethylamine:
a) Methotrexate
b) Cisplatin
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Carmustine

Q10. Annual Pharmacist Registration is valid till
a) 31st July
b) 31st Jan
c) 31st March
d) 31st December



1-d;   2-b;    3-b;    4-b;   5-c;   6-b;    7-a;   8- c;  9- c;   10-d

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Q1. Valproate is very effective against:
a) Absence seizures
b) Myoclonic seizures
c) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
d) All of the above

Q2. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin
b) Selegiline
c) Haloperidol
d) Fluoxetine

Q3. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase?
a) Fomepizole
b) Ethanol
c) Disulfiram
d) Naltrexone

Q4. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
a) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine

Q5. Which of the following MAO inhibitors has amphetamine-like activity and is related to nonhydrazide derivatives:  
a) Phenelzine
b) Moclobemide
c) Tranylcypramine
d) All of the above

Q6. Indicate the benzodiazepine, which has  the shortest elimination half-life:
a) Quazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Clorazepate

Q7. Caffeine does not cause:
a) Inhibition of gastric secretion
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Moderate diuretic action
d) Increase in free fatty acids

Q8. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe  of the pituitary?
a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

Q9.  Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is:
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing
c) Sedation
d) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding

Q10. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:
a) Doxycycline
b) Streptomycin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Amoxacillin



1-d;   2-b;    3-c;    4-b;      5-c;   6-b;    7-a;     8- c;  9- c;   10-a

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Q1. Drug screening for an anti-infectious agent would study the drug against a variety of infectious organisms (____) and against non-infectious assays (____).
a) Power; Specificity
b) Sensitivity; Side-effects
c) Activity; Selectivity
d) Selectivity; Activity

Q2. Which of the following occurs on the extracellular domain of the lipid bilayer and not the cytoplasmic domain, with regard to drug action?
a) Ligand binding
b) Coupling with membrane associated molecules
c) Trafficking
d) Signaling

Q3. Which direction would a partial agonist shift the dose-response curve when compared to a full agonist?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) Down
d) Up

Q4. Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
a) ACh; ACh; NE
b) ACh; NE; ACh
c) NE; ACh; NE
d) NE; NE; ACh

Q5. An inhibitory Phytohormone is
a) Cytokinin
b) Gibberlins
c) Auxins
d) Ethylene

Q6. The Pharmacist registration with State Pharmacy Council is valid for
a) 1year
b) 2years
c) 3years
d) 4years

Q7. Which of the following is fifth state of matter
a) Gaseous Vapours
b) Plasma
c) ionic liquids
d) Bose -Einstein Condensate

Q8. Identify the amino acid which contains Sulphur
a) Cystein and Methonine
b) Cystein and Tyrosine
c) Methonine and Tyrosine
d) Methonine and Alanine

Q9. Haptens
a) act as antigens
b) stimulate immune response
c) when combined with antigens stimulate immune response
d) all of the above

Q10. which of the following ia NOT an autoimmune disease
a) Psoriasis
b) Multiple Sclerosis
c) Pheocytochroma
d) Myasthenia gravis

1-c; 2-a; 3-c; 4-a; 5-d; 6-a; 7-d; 8-a; 9-c; 10-c

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Q1. ‘Safi’ is a _______ medicine:

a) Ayurvedic

b) Siddha

c) Unani

d) Homeopathic

Q2. Stimulation of exocrine glands by muscarinic agonist leads to

a) Sweating

b) Salivation

c) Bronchial secretions

d) All of the above

Q3. Bacteriostatic antitubercular drug is

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Streptomycin

Q4. All of the following types of cells are innervated by the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT:

a) Smooth muscle of blood vessels

b) Skeletal muscle

c) Sinoatrial node

d) Salivary glands

Q5. An antibiotic that inhibits DNA-gyrase enzyme is

a) Gentamicin   

b) Ciprofloxacin

c) Cephalosporin

d) Erythromycin

Q6. Ergotamine relieves migraine by

a) Blocking vascular a adrenergic receptors

b) Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors

c) Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels

d) Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Q7. Adusa or vasaka belongs to the family:

a) Acanthaceae

b) Fabaceae

c) Menispermeaceae

d) Convolvulaceae

Q8. Which of the following part of plant does cotton represent?

a) Epidermal trichomes

b) Phloem fibres

c) Xylem vessels

d) None of the above

Q 9. Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with pharmacotherapy using heparin?

a) An increase in the number of circulating platelets

b) Thrombocytopenia

c) Purple toe syndrome

d) Teratogenicity to the fetus

Q 10. The neurotransmitter serotonin is derived from which precursor amino acid?

a) Dopamine

b) Tyrosine

c) Tryptophan


1-c;    2-d;     3-a;     4-b;      5-b;     6-a;    7-a;     8-c;   9-b;    10-a

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Q1.“Nicotinic” sites include all of the following except

a) Sympathetic ganglia

b) Adrenal medullary cells

c) Parasympathetic ganglia

d) Skeletal muscle

Q2. Dihydro-orotase dehydrogenase inhibitor used as DMARD is

a) Methtraxate

b) Leflunomide

c) Azathioprine

d) Cyclosporine

Q3. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-transform drugs?

a) Brain

b) Kidney

c) Liver

d) Lung

Q4.  Pure opioid antagonist is

a) Nalorphine   

b) Pentazocine

c) Naloxone

d) Nalbuphine

Q5. A prodrug is

a) The prototype member of a class of drugs

b) The oldest member of a class of drugs

c) An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

d) A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Q6. Optic neuritis is the side effect of

a) Isoniazid   

b) Pyrazinamide

c) Ethambutol

d) Rifampin

Q7. Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by metoprolol but not by phentolamine?

a) Cardiac stimulation

b) Contraction of radial smooth muscle in the iris

c) Increase of camp in fat

d) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

Q8. Aspirin is better absorbed from

a) Small Intestine   

b) Stomach

c) Lower part of small intestine

d) Colon

Q9. For a drug such as piroxicam with a 40-hour half life and being dosed once daily (i.e., every 24 hours), steady state will be reached shortly following

a) 1st dose

b) 3rd dose

c) 5th dose

d) 8th dose

Q10. Mefipristone is drug used for

a) Medical termination of pregnancy   

b) Hormone replacement therapy

c) For treatment of breast carcinoma

d) Treatment of Hot flushes

1- a;   2-b;    3-c;    4-c;    5-c;     6-c;   7-a;   8-c;     9-d ;    10-a

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Q1. Indications for 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) administration are the following, EXCEPT:
a) Hypocalcemia in chronic renal failure
b) Vitamin D-dependent rickets
c) Malabsorption of vitamin D from intestine
d) Elevated skeletal turnover
Q2.  Route of administration of vitamin D3 is:
a) Subcutaneous
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intranasal
Q3.The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+)- tartaric acid because it has a positive   
a)  Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
b)  pH in organic solvent
c)  Optical rotation and is derived from D(+) glyceraldehyde
d)  Optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium
Q4. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
Q5. Which of the following vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by  enhancing its extracerebral metabolism?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Tocopherol
d) Riboflavin
Q6. In contrast to morphine, heroin is:
a) Used clinically
b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) More effective orally
d) Less potent and long-acting
Q7. How many enantiomer pairs are obtained by monochlorination of 2, 3-dimethylbutane
a)   One
b)  Four
c)  Two
d)  Three
Q8. World Diabetes days is celebrated on
a) November 14
b) February 14
c) December 14
d) January 14
Q9. Currently used antithyroid drugs include the following, EXCEPT:
a) Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b) Diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque)
c) Methimazole (Tapazole)
d) Potassium perchlorate
Q10. Which of the following agents is related to cannabis?
a) Heroin
b) Ecstasy
c) Hashish
d) Crack

1-D;       2-B;    3-C;       4-C;         5-A;          6-B;        7-A;        8-A;         9-D;       10-c

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Q1. Local anesthetics produce:
a) Analgesia, amnesia, loss of consciousness
b) Blocking pain sensation without loss of consciousness
c) Alleviation of anxiety and pain with an altered level of consciousness
d) A stupor or somnolent state
Q2. A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:
a) Local irritation and tissue damage
b) Systemic toxicity
c) Fast onset and long duration of action
d) Vasodilatation
Q3. Granulocytopenia, gastrointestinal irritati on, gingival hyperplasia, and facial hirsutism are possible adverse effects of:
a) Phenobarbital
b) Carbamazepin
c) Valproate
d) Phenytoin
Q4. Most local anesthetic agents consist of:
a) Lipophylic group (frequently an aromatic ring)
b) Intermediate chain (commonly including an ester or amide)
c) Amino group
d) All of the above
Q5. Which of the following agents is  the precursor of dopamine?
a) Bromocriptine
b) Levodopa
c) Selegiline
d) Amantadine
Q6. Indicate the nonopioid agent of central effect with analgesic activity:
a) Reserpine
b) Propranolol
c) Clopheline
d) Prazosin
Q7. Which one of the following groups is responsible for the duration of the local anesthetic action?

a) Intermediate chain
b) Lipophylic group
c) Ionizable group
d) All of the above
Q8. Which of the following statements concerning nitrate mechanism of action is True?
a) Therapeutically active agents in this group are capable of releasing nitric oxide (NO) in to vascular smooth muscle target tissues
b) Nitric oxide (NO) is an effective activator of soluble guanylyl cyclase and probably acts mainly through this mechanism
c) Nitrates useful in angina decrease myocardial oxygen requirement (by decreasing the determinations of oxygen demand) and increase myocardial oxygen delivery (by reversing coronary arterial spasm)
d) All of the above
Q9. All of the following statements concerning the general principles  of therapy with lipid-lowering drugs are true EXCEPT:

a) Therapy with a lipid-lowering drug should be always accompanied by an appropriate diet
b) A lipid-lowering diet should be discontinued if it fails to decrease the levels of plasma LDL cholesterol by at least 10%
c) Lipid-lowering drugs should only be administered after at least 3 months of  prior dietary therapy
d) Some combinations of lipid-lowering drugs are synergistic
Q10. All of the following statements concerning vitamin E functions are true, EXCEPT:
a) An extremely important antioxidant, which protects cell membrane lipids from peroxidation by breaking the chain reaction of free radical formation to which polyunsaturated fatty acids are particularly vulnerable
b) Antisterility and antiabortion factor
c) Specifically required for synthesis of prothrombin and several other clotting factors
d) An essential for oxidative processes regulation

1-b;        2-c;    3-d;     4-d;    5-b;    6-c;    7-a;    8-d;    9-b;    10-c

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Q1. Which part of Shankhpushpi is used as drug?

a) Roots

b) Leaves

c) Stems

d) Whole aerial parts


Q2. Identify an Dihydroorotase dehydrogenase inhibitor used as DMARD.

a) Methtraxate

b) Leflunomide

c) Azathioprine

d) Cyclosporine


Q3. Leaving group is

a) Positively charged

b) Negatively charged

c) Neutral

d) Both b and c


Q4. The most useful colligative property is

a) Relative lowering in vapour pressure

b) Depression in freezing Point

c) Osmotic Pressure

d) Elevation in Boiling Point


Q5. Brahmi (Centella asiatica) belongs to the family:

a) Scrophulariaceae

b) Umbelliferae

c) Leguminoceae

d) Acanthaceae


Q6. Corticosteroids are

a) Immunosuppresent

b) Ant-inflammatory

c) Antiallergic

d) All of these


Q7. World Cancer day is observed on:

a) 4th Jan

b) 4th Feb

c) 7th Feb

d) 7th Jan


Q8. Neer-brahmi is known by the botanical name:

a) Butea monosperma

b) Boerhaavia diffussa

c) Bacopa monniera

d) Alpinia galanga


Q9.  Which of the following drugs is atypical neuroleptic with antihistaminic activity?

a) Tiagabine

b) Quitiapine

c) Meclobimide

d) Fluvoxamine


Q10. Typhoid is

a) Air born

b) Water born

c) Soil born

d) All of the above


1-d;             2-b;           3- d;          4-c;           5-b;           6-d;          7- b;            8-c;          9- b;         10-b


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