NIPER MCQ

DAILY QUIZ-25

DAILY QUIZ-25




Q1. A drug has first order rate of reactions and half-life is 3 hours, the half life will be related to the following statement:
a) Increase when concentration of drug increases
b) Decrease when concentration of drug increase
c) Independent of initial drug concentration
d) decrease in-patient with renal impairments

Q2. The lack of function of bone marrow generally results in
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Pernicious anemia

Q3. Lyophylization (freeze dry) method used for:
a) drying wet drugs to powder
b) powder sterilization methods
c) Hormone sterilization methods
d) Sublimation methods used in drying wet powder

Q4. Sodium benzoate is used as
A-Preservative
B-Solvent
C-Co-solvent
D-Filler

Q5. What analgesic has withdrawn from market because of it cardiac heart failure side effect?
a) Celecoxib
b) Rofecoxib
c) Lumirocoxib
d) Diclofenac




Q6. Glutathione conjugation, a phase II metabolism produces which of the following
substance as derivative of its reactions?
a) Carboxilic acid
b) Glucuronic acid
c) PABA + Alcohol
d) Marcapturic acid

Q7. In some suppositories preparation, epinephrine is used because
a) It is vasodilator
b) Increase the rate of absorption of drug
c) It is vasoconstrictor, increase localized action
d) It is decrease absorption of drug

Q8. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the ethanol to acetaldehyde conversion
a) Alcohol decarboxylase
b) Alcohol hydroxylase
c) Alcohol hydrogenase
d) Alcohol dehydrogenase

Q9. The functional group present in captopril is:
a) sulfonamide
b) Bisulfate
c) Sulfhydryl group
d) Nitrate group

Q10 High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) resolute means:
I-Resolution of one analyte from others in substance mixture
II-Resolution of solvents  
III- Resolution of stationary phase
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) All of the above are correct





1-c;   2-b;    3-d;    4-a;   5-b;   6-d;    7-c;   8- d;  9-c ;   10-a

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DAILY QUIZ-24

DAILY QUIZ-24




1. Morphin is separable from its side alkaloids because:
a) morphine has a piperidine ring.
b) morphine has two methoxy groups.
c) morphine has phenolic hydroxyl group while the side alkaloids have none.
d) morphine has no phenolic hydroxyl group while the side alkaloid has it.

2. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
a) Ouabain
b) Phlorrizin
c) Digoxin
d) Alloxan

3. Ginseng saponins are of the …………… series.
a) lupane
b) ursane
c) abietane
d) dammarane

4. In an electrolytic cell the electrode at which the electrons enter the solution is called the ______ ; the chemical change that occurs at this electrode is called _______.
a) anode, oxidation
b) anode, reduction
c) cathode, oxidation
d) cathode, reduction

5. Aspirin overdose toxicities may treated by:
a) Acidic diuresis
b) Alkaline diuresis
c) Sodium acetate
d) Activated charcoal




6. All of the following insulin physiological actions are correct except:
a) Increase glycogenesis
b) Decrease gluconeogenesis
c) Increase lipolysis
d) Decrease glycogenesis

7. What type of compounds are formed through acid catalysed decomposition of procyanidins?
a) flavanone
b) catechin
c) flavonol
d) chalkone

8. Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:
a) pyrimidine ring.
b) purine ring.
c) pyrazine ring.
d) pteridine ring.

9. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for the activity of enzyme is called
a) Holoenzyme
b) Apoenzyme
c) Coenzyme
d) Isoenzyme

10. Many lead salts are often used as pigments. If PbSO4were used in an unglazed ceramic bowl, how many milligrams of lead(II) could dissolve per liter of water?
a) 43
b) 35
c) 11
d) 28





1-c;   2-b;    3-d;    4-d;   5-b;   6-d;    7-d;   8- d;  9-c ;   10-d

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DAILY QUIZ-23

DAILY QUIZ-23





1. Drug biotransformation phase I makes drugs ____ polar for metabolism and phase II makes drugs ____ polar for excretion.
a) More; More
b) More; Less
c) Less; More
d) Less; Less
2. Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
3. Which of the following drug safety categories for pregnancy is the highest risk, where studies have shown a significant risk to women and to the fetus?
a) A
b) H
c) C
d) X
4. Tachyphylaxis refers to which of the following?
a) Responsiveness increased rapidly after administration of a drug
b) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after administration of a drug
c) Responsiveness increased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (hypersensitive)
d) Responsiveness decreased rapidly after maintenance of a drug (desensitized)




5. Toluene on Friedel Craft’s halogenation gives
a) ortho halotoluene
b) para halotoluene
c) meta halotoluene
d) Both a and b
6. What clinical trial phase involves small does up to profound physiologic responses,or up to minor toxicity (pharmacokinetics)?
a) Phase 1
b) Phase 2
c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
7. Which is not the chemical constituent naturally obtained from Opium?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Narcotine
d) Heroine
8. Which drug is not belonging to family Apocyanaceae ?
a) Vinca
b) Rauwolfia
c) Kurchi
d) Gloriosa
9. The most common solvent used in oral preparations is
a) Water
b) Alcohol
c) Glycerine
d) Rose water
10. Benzalkonium is a_________ type of preservative.
a) Acidic
b) Neutral
c) Mercurial
d) Quaternary Ammonium Compound




1-a;   2-d;    3-d;    4-b;   5-d;   6-a;    7-d;   8-d ;  9- a;   10-d

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DAILY QUIZ-22

DAILY QUIZ-22

1. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, which has an additional direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline

2. Which vitamin is useful in alcoholism?
a) Thiamine
b) Pyridoxine
c) Folic acid
d) Ascorbic acid

3. Local anesthetics are:
a) Weak bases
b) Weak acids
c) Salts
d) None of the above

4. Which of the following is not a prodrug?
I)captopril                    II)enalapril             III)ramipril             IV)lisinopril
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) I and IV
d) III and IV

5. Aliskiren acts by
a) Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
b) Inhibiting the release of rennin
c) Inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
d) Inhibiting the action of aldosterone

6. Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
a) Mono-exponentially
b) Bi-exponentially
c) Tri-exponentially
d) Non-exponentially

7. Which of the following statements is not correct for local anesthetics?
a) In a tissue they exist either as an uncharged base or as a cation
b) A charged cationic form penetrates biologic membranes more readily than an uncharged form
c) Local anesthetics are much less effective in inflamed tissues
d) Low pH in inflamed tissues decreases the dissociation of nonionized molecules.

8. Coulter counter is used in determination of
a) Particle surface area
b) particle size
c) Particle volume
d) All of the above

9. The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is
a) ureide
b) imidazolidinone
c) dihydropyrimidine
d) tetrahydropyrimidine

10. Drug and Magic Remedy act is also called as
a) Objectionable Drugs Act
b) Objectionable Treatment Act
c) Objectionable Advertisement Act
d) Magical drugs act





1-c; 2-a; 3-a; 4-c; 5-b; 6-a; 7-b; 8-d ; 9- a; 10-c

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DAILY QUIZ 20

DAILY QUIZ 20





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Q1. Valproate is very effective against:
a) Absence seizures
b) Myoclonic seizures
c) Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
d) All of the above

Q2. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin
b) Selegiline
c) Haloperidol
d) Fluoxetine

Q3. Which of the following agents is an inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase?
a) Fomepizole
b) Ethanol
c) Disulfiram
d) Naltrexone

Q4. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
a) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine

Q5. Which of the following MAO inhibitors has amphetamine-like activity and is related to nonhydrazide derivatives:  
a) Phenelzine
b) Moclobemide
c) Tranylcypramine
d) All of the above

Q6. Indicate the benzodiazepine, which has  the shortest elimination half-life:
a) Quazepam
b) Triazolam
c) Diazepam
d) Clorazepate

Q7. Caffeine does not cause:
a) Inhibition of gastric secretion
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Moderate diuretic action
d) Increase in free fatty acids

Q8. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe  of the pituitary?
a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

Q9.  Side effect of first-generation histamine H1 antagonists is:
a) Aplastic anemia
b) Vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing
c) Sedation
d) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding

Q10. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-tetracyclines:
a) Doxycycline
b) Streptomycin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Amoxacillin


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1-d;   2-b;    3-c;    4-b;      5-c;   6-b;    7-a;     8- c;  9- c;   10-a

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DAILY QUIZ-19

DAILY QUIZ-19

Q1. Drug screening for an anti-infectious agent would study the drug against a variety of infectious organisms (____) and against non-infectious assays (____).
a) Power; Specificity
b) Sensitivity; Side-effects
c) Activity; Selectivity
d) Selectivity; Activity

Q2. Which of the following occurs on the extracellular domain of the lipid bilayer and not the cytoplasmic domain, with regard to drug action?
a) Ligand binding
b) Coupling with membrane associated molecules
c) Trafficking
d) Signaling

Q3. Which direction would a partial agonist shift the dose-response curve when compared to a full agonist?
a) To the left
b) To the right
c) Down
d) Up

Q4. Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers release ____, postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release ____ (for muscarinic cholinergic receptors), and postganglionic sympathetic fibers release ____ (for adrenergic receptors).
a) ACh; ACh; NE
b) ACh; NE; ACh
c) NE; ACh; NE
d) NE; NE; ACh

Q5. An inhibitory Phytohormone is
a) Cytokinin
b) Gibberlins
c) Auxins
d) Ethylene

Q6. The Pharmacist registration with State Pharmacy Council is valid for
a) 1year
b) 2years
c) 3years
d) 4years

Q7. Which of the following is fifth state of matter
a) Gaseous Vapours
b) Plasma
c) ionic liquids
d) Bose -Einstein Condensate

Q8. Identify the amino acid which contains Sulphur
a) Cystein and Methonine
b) Cystein and Tyrosine
c) Methonine and Tyrosine
d) Methonine and Alanine

Q9. Haptens
a) act as antigens
b) stimulate immune response
c) when combined with antigens stimulate immune response
d) all of the above

Q10. which of the following ia NOT an autoimmune disease
a) Psoriasis
b) Multiple Sclerosis
c) Pheocytochroma
d) Myasthenia gravis


1-c; 2-a; 3-c; 4-a; 5-d; 6-a; 7-d; 8-a; 9-c; 10-c

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DAILY QUIZ-18

DAILY QUIZ-18

Q1. ‘Safi’ is a _______ medicine:

a) Ayurvedic

b) Siddha

c) Unani

d) Homeopathic

Q2. Stimulation of exocrine glands by muscarinic agonist leads to

a) Sweating

b) Salivation

c) Bronchial secretions

d) All of the above

Q3. Bacteriostatic antitubercular drug is

a) Ethambutol

b) Isoniazid

c) Rifampin

d) Streptomycin

Q4. All of the following types of cells are innervated by the autonomic nervous system EXCEPT:

a) Smooth muscle of blood vessels

b) Skeletal muscle

c) Sinoatrial node

d) Salivary glands

Q5. An antibiotic that inhibits DNA-gyrase enzyme is

a) Gentamicin   

b) Ciprofloxacin

c) Cephalosporin

d) Erythromycin

Q6. Ergotamine relieves migraine by

a) Blocking vascular a adrenergic receptors

b) Blocking vascular 5-HT2 receptors

c) Dilating cranial arterio-venous shunt channels

d) Constricting cranial vessels and reducing perivascular neurogenic inflammation

Q7. Adusa or vasaka belongs to the family:

a) Acanthaceae

b) Fabaceae

c) Menispermeaceae

d) Convolvulaceae

Q8. Which of the following part of plant does cotton represent?

a) Epidermal trichomes

b) Phloem fibres

c) Xylem vessels

d) None of the above

Q 9. Which of the following is an adverse effect associated with pharmacotherapy using heparin?

a) An increase in the number of circulating platelets

b) Thrombocytopenia

c) Purple toe syndrome

d) Teratogenicity to the fetus

Q 10. The neurotransmitter serotonin is derived from which precursor amino acid?

a) Dopamine

b) Tyrosine

c) Tryptophan

d) DOPA


1-c;    2-d;     3-a;     4-b;      5-b;     6-a;    7-a;     8-c;   9-b;    10-a

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DAILY QUIZ-17

DAILY QUIZ-17

Q1.“Nicotinic” sites include all of the following except

a) Sympathetic ganglia

b) Adrenal medullary cells

c) Parasympathetic ganglia

d) Skeletal muscle

Q2. Dihydro-orotase dehydrogenase inhibitor used as DMARD is

a) Methtraxate

b) Leflunomide

c) Azathioprine

d) Cyclosporine

Q3. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-transform drugs?

a) Brain

b) Kidney

c) Liver

d) Lung

Q4.  Pure opioid antagonist is

a) Nalorphine   

b) Pentazocine

c) Naloxone

d) Nalbuphine

Q5. A prodrug is

a) The prototype member of a class of drugs

b) The oldest member of a class of drugs

c) An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite

d) A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation

Q6. Optic neuritis is the side effect of

a) Isoniazid   

b) Pyrazinamide

c) Ethambutol

d) Rifampin

Q7. Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by metoprolol but not by phentolamine?

a) Cardiac stimulation

b) Contraction of radial smooth muscle in the iris

c) Increase of camp in fat

d) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

Q8. Aspirin is better absorbed from

a) Small Intestine   

b) Stomach

c) Lower part of small intestine

d) Colon

Q9. For a drug such as piroxicam with a 40-hour half life and being dosed once daily (i.e., every 24 hours), steady state will be reached shortly following

a) 1st dose

b) 3rd dose

c) 5th dose

d) 8th dose

Q10. Mefipristone is drug used for

a) Medical termination of pregnancy   

b) Hormone replacement therapy

c) For treatment of breast carcinoma

d) Treatment of Hot flushes


1- a;   2-b;    3-c;    4-c;    5-c;     6-c;   7-a;   8-c;     9-d ;    10-a

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DAILY QUIZ- 16

DAILY QUIZ- 16

Q1.   Potency of action of
a) Miglitol is six times higher than that of acarbose
b) Acarbose is more than that of miglitol
c) Miglitol and acarbose is equal
d) Oral hypoglycemic agents depend on the severity of hyperglycemia
Q2.   Which of the following oral hypoglycaemic drugs stimulates both synthesis and release of insulin from beta islet cells:
a) Glibenclamide
b) Phenformin
c) Buformine
d) Metformin
Q3. Half-life of interferon alpha is:
a) 18-24 hours
b) 4-16 hours
c) 25-35 minutes
d) 21 days
Q4. Vitamin-like compounds are:
a) A number of compounds, whose nutritional requirements exist at specific periods of development,
particularly neonatal development, and periods of rapid growth
b) Inorganic nutrients needed in small quantities in body
c) Organic substances needed in  very large quantities in body
d) Products of endocrine gland secretion
Q5.   Mega doses of which vitamin are some time beneficial viral respiratory infections
a) Vitamin С
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin  К
d) Vitamin PP
Q6.The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Q7. Characteristics of Amphotericin B are following, EXCEPT:
a) Used for systemic mycosis treatment
b) Poor absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
c) Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity
d) Influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane
Q8.   Tick the antimycobacterial drug, belonging to second-line agents:
a) Isoniazid
b) PAS
c) Rifampin
d) Streptomycin
Q9.   Tick the drug used for leishmaniasis treatment:
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Albendazole
c) Sodium stibogluconate
d) Tinidazole
Q10. The mechanism of both topiramate and felbamate action is:
a) Reduction of excitatory  glutamatergic neurotransmission
b) Inhibition of voltage sensitive Na+  channels
c) Potentiation of GABAergic neuronal transmission
d) All of the above


1-A;        2-A;      3-B;        4-A;     5-A;       6-B;       7-C;           8-B;        9-C;      10-D

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DAILY QUIZ-15

DAILY QUIZ-15

Q1. Indications for 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) administration are the following, EXCEPT:
a) Hypocalcemia in chronic renal failure
b) Vitamin D-dependent rickets
c) Malabsorption of vitamin D from intestine
d) Elevated skeletal turnover
Q2.  Route of administration of vitamin D3 is:
a) Subcutaneous
b) Oral
c) Intravenous
d) Intranasal
Q3.The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+)- tartaric acid because it has a positive   
a)  Optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
b)  pH in organic solvent
c)  Optical rotation and is derived from D(+) glyceraldehyde
d)  Optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium
Q4. For which of the following conditions could aspirin be used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
Q5. Which of the following vitamins reduces the beneficial effects of levodopa by  enhancing its extracerebral metabolism?
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Tocopherol
d) Riboflavin
Q6. In contrast to morphine, heroin is:
a) Used clinically
b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) More effective orally
d) Less potent and long-acting
Q7. How many enantiomer pairs are obtained by monochlorination of 2, 3-dimethylbutane
a)   One
b)  Four
c)  Two
d)  Three
Q8. World Diabetes days is celebrated on
a) November 14
b) February 14
c) December 14
d) January 14
Q9. Currently used antithyroid drugs include the following, EXCEPT:
a) Propylthiouracil (PTU)
b) Diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque)
c) Methimazole (Tapazole)
d) Potassium perchlorate
Q10. Which of the following agents is related to cannabis?
a) Heroin
b) Ecstasy
c) Hashish
d) Crack


1-D;       2-B;    3-C;       4-C;         5-A;          6-B;        7-A;        8-A;         9-D;       10-c

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